[2026] Use Valid CCDS-O Exam - Actual Exam Question & Answer
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NEW QUESTION # 21
In February, a patient is diagnosed with prostate cancer, which is classified as HCC 23. In October, the patient is diagnosed with prostate cancer with bone metastases, which is classified as HCC 18. Which of the following is true about the patient's risk score?
- A. The risk score will not be impacted by the presence of HCC 18 or HCC 23 because they are not currently being treated.
- B. The risk score will be calculated based upon HCC 18 because it has the highest weight in the hierarchy HCC 23.
- C. The risk score will be calculated based upon HCC 18 and HCC 23 because they were both documented and coded in the same calendar year.
- D. The risk score will be calculated based upon HCC 23 because it was captured first.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the CMS-HCC model, many related conditions are organized into hierarchies so that only the most severe manifestation within a disease family contributes to the RAF. This prevents double counting when multiple codes describe progressive severity of the same underlying condition. Cancer categories are a common example: a diagnosis reflecting metastatic disease represents substantially higher expected resource utilization than a diagnosis of localized/primary malignancy. In this scenario, the February prostate cancer maps to a lower-severity HCC (HCC 23), while the October documentation of prostate cancer with bone metastases maps to a higher-severity HCC (HCC 18). When both are captured within the applicable period, the hierarchy logic retains the higher-weighted metastatic category and suppresses the lower category. The timing of which was coded first does not control the hierarchy outcome, and both HCCs are not counted together when they fall within the same hierarchical grouping. Therefore, the patient's risk score calculation reflects HCC 18 rather than HCC 23.
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which diagnosis and treatment plan may generate a query?
- A. Atrial fibrillation and amiodarone
- B. Prostate carcinoma and luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone
- C. Malnutrition and parenteral nutrition
- D. Severe major depressive disorder and immunotherapy
Answer: D
Explanation:
Outpatient CDI queries are most commonly triggered when there is a disconnect between the documented diagnosis and the documented treatment plan, suggesting that the clinician may be managing an additional condition that is not clearly stated, or that the diagnosis is inaccurately documented. Options A and B reflect typical, clinically aligned management: luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone therapy is a standard treatment pathway for prostate carcinoma, and amiodarone is a recognized antiarrhythmic used in atrial fibrillation management in appropriate circumstances. Option C can also be clinically consistent because parenteral nutrition is often used when malnutrition is present and the patient cannot meet nutritional needs enterally. Option D is the outlier: "immunotherapy" is not a standard treatment for severe major depressive disorder and more commonly aligns with oncology or certain immune-mediated diseases. This mismatch would appropriately prompt a query to clarify the actual condition being treated (e.g., an active malignancy) or to confirm whether "immunotherapy" refers to something else (such as allergy immunotherapy) and whether depression is the correct, visit-relevant diagnosis being addressed.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Documentation from which of the following facility settings contributes to the CMS-HCC risk score?
- A. Freestanding ambulatory surgical center
- B. Hospice care
- C. Hospital ambulatory clinic
- D. Renal dialysis center
Answer: C
Explanation:
Under CMS-HCC risk adjustment (commonly applied to Medicare Advantage), qualifying diagnoses must come from acceptable encounter/claim sources and eligible provider types. Hospital-based outpatient services (including a hospital ambulatory clinic) are among the standard, acceptable settings where diagnoses documented, coded, and submitted on qualifying encounters may be used for risk adjustment-assuming they are supported, assessed/managed, and submitted per program requirements. In contrast, certain facility claim types do not typically contribute to CMS-HCC capture in the same way. Hospice care is generally treated as a carve-out/unique payment environment and is not relied upon as a routine source of risk-adjusting diagnosis capture for the member's ongoing RAF. Renal dialysis centers (ESRD facilities) likewise operate under specialized payment constructs and are not the typical outpatient setting used to drive CMS-HCC diagnosis capture for risk adjustment in standard CDI workflows. Freestanding ambulatory surgical centers also frequently fall outside the usual risk-adjustment-eligible encounter sources emphasized in outpatient CDI programs. Therefore, the hospital ambulatory clinic is the correct setting among these choices.
NEW QUESTION # 24
What diagnoses are included in code category N18, chronic kidney disease?
- A. Dialysis, chronic uremia, and polycystic kidney disease
- B. GFR, ATN, and unspecified kidney failure
- C. CKD stage 3, CKD severe, and ESRD
- D. AKI, ESRD, and dialysis
Answer: C
Explanation:
ICD-10-CM category N18 (Chronic kidney disease) is used to report CKD by stage, including stage-based descriptors and end stage renal disease (ESRD). Within N18, codes identify CKD stage 1 through stage 5, ESRD (stage 5D), and CKD unspecified. Outpatient CDI review focuses on ensuring providers document the stage (often supported by eGFR trends) because stage drives correct code selection and accurately reflects disease severity for risk, quality, and medical necessity. Options that include dialysis are not part of N18 itself; dialysis status and encounter codes are reported elsewhere (e.g., dialysis dependence/status codes), not as N18 category diagnoses. AKI (acute kidney injury) and ATN (acute tubular necrosis) are acute renal conditions and are coded outside N18. Likewise, polycystic kidney disease and "uremia" are separate diagnoses with their own code categories. Therefore, the set that correctly matches what N18 represents is CKD stage-based diagnoses such as CKD stage 3, more advanced/severe CKD stages, and ESRD.
NEW QUESTION # 25
A 75-year-old with a PMH of chronic foot ulcer, CKD, and depression is seen by his PCP for continued fatigue and decreased urination. Labs drawn on previous day are reviewed. Patient describes extreme fatigue and no motivation. Assessment and plan include: "CKD 3 with renal failure - refer to nephrologist. Chronic nonpressure foot ulcer - home care for wound assessment. Depression - Rx for SSRI." Which of the following are the validated diagnoses that risk adjust and qualify as CMS-HCCs?
- A. Renal failure; CKD 3
- B. Depression; renal failure
- C. Chronic non-pressure ulcer; depression
- D. CKD 3; chronic non-pressure ulcer
Answer: D
Explanation:
Under CMS-HCC methodology, risk adjustment is driven by ICD-10-CM diagnoses that map to HCC categories and are supported as active conditions addressed at the encounter. CKD stage 3 is a classic HCC-qualifying chronic condition because it represents ongoing kidney disease severity and expected resource use, and in this note it is actively assessed with labs reviewed and a nephrology referral. A chronic non-pressure foot ulcer is also typically HCC-qualifying when documented as ongoing and requiring management, which is supported here by home care/wound assessment planning. In contrast, "depression" (without specification such as major depressive disorder severity/status) commonly does not qualify for HCC in the way major depressive/bipolar categories do, making it less reliable as a risk-adjusting diagnosis. Likewise, "renal failure" is nonspecific and potentially conflicting with CKD stage 3; CDI best practice would be to clarify acuity/severity (acute kidney injury vs CKD stage vs ESRD) rather than assume "renal failure" as an HCC driver. Therefore, the validated HCC-qualifying pair is CKD 3 and chronic non-pressure ulcer.
NEW QUESTION # 26
If a patient is being seen for follow-up and the documentation indicates that the patient was admitted to the hospital 28 days ago with an acute cerebral infarction with remaining right-sided weakness, which of the following diagnoses would be MOST appropriate?
- A. Cerebral infarction, unspecified, hemiparesis affecting right dominant side
- B. Hemiparesis following cerebral infarction affecting right dominant side
- C. Other sequelae of cerebral infarction
- D. Hemiparesis following cerebral infarction affecting unspecified side
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the outpatient follow-up setting, when the acute stroke event has occurred in the recent past and the patient is now being evaluated for residual deficits, documentation and coding should focus on the sequelae (late effects) rather than re-coding the acute infarction itself-unless the provider clearly states the stroke is still in the acute phase and being actively treated as such. ACDIS outpatient CDI principles stress selecting the diagnosis that best reflects the reason for today's encounter and the condition being assessed/managed. Here, the ongoing clinical issue driving follow-up care is the persistent neurologic deficit (right-sided weakness/hemiparesis) after the cerebral infarction. Option C is the most specific and clinically accurate because it captures (1) the relationship to the prior cerebral infarction ("following cerebral infarction") and (2) laterality and dominance ("right dominant side"), which improves code specificity and reflects functional impact. Option A incorrectly keeps the focus on an unspecified cerebral infarction rather than the residual deficit, and option D is too nonspecific compared with a clearly described hemiparesis.
NEW QUESTION # 27
An 81-year-old is seen by his family physician for continued confusion and poor memory. PMH includes HTN, GERD, and Parkinson's. The provider reviews the neurologist's consultation notes, evaluates the patient's current mental state, and addresses the diagnoses of HTN, GERD, and Parkinson's. The provider's problem list included: Dementia, GERD, HTN, and Parkinson's. Which of the following is the first-listed diagnosis?
- A. Dementia
- B. Parkinson's
- C. GERD
- D. HTN
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the outpatient setting, the first-listed diagnosis is the condition chiefly responsible for the services provided during the encounter. Here, the stated reason for the visit is continued confusion and poor memory, and the provider specifically evaluates the patient's current mental state and references neurology consultation notes-actions that directly support assessment of a cognitive disorder. While HTN, GERD, and Parkinson's are also addressed and may be reportable if they meet encounter relevance (e.g., monitored, evaluated, assessed/managed, or treated), they are not the primary driver for today's visit based on the presenting complaint. Outpatient documentation and coding guidance emphasizes sequencing the diagnosis that best explains the visit's main purpose first, with additional coexisting conditions listed afterward when they impact care. Since "dementia" is on the active problem list and aligns with the patient's cognitive symptoms and the physician's mental-status evaluation, it is the most appropriate first-listed diagnosis among the options.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which of the following diabetic complications requires the assignment of a combination code plus the code for the specific complication?
- A. Retinopathy
- B. Osteomyelitis
- C. Nephropathy
- D. Dermatitis
Answer: B
Explanation:
In ICD-10-CM diabetes coding (as reinforced in outpatient CDI education), some diabetes manifestations are fully captured by a single diabetes "combination" code, while others require a diabetes complication code plus an additional code to identify the specific manifestation. Diabetic nephropathy and many forms of diabetic retinopathy are commonly represented by diabetes combination codes that already describe the manifestation with built-in specificity options (e.g., diabetes with nephropathy; diabetes with retinopathy with/without macular edema and severity). Osteomyelitis, however, is typically captured using a diabetes code such as "diabetes with other specified complication" (e.g., E11.69) to establish the linkage to diabetes and an additional code from the osteomyelitis category (e.g., M86.-) to specify the site, acuity, and type of osteomyelitis. From a chart review standpoint, CDI often queries to confirm the causal relationship ("due to diabetes") and to ensure the osteomyelitis details (site, acute vs chronic) are documented so both codes can be assigned accurately and compliantly.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Progress note states: "Recent EGD identified severe hyperplasia, without obstruction. Follow-up today for Barrett's. Complains of chest pain, difficulty swallowing, 15-pound weight loss in last 12 weeks. Diagnoses-significant weight loss, cachexia, anorexia, Barrett's esophagus, and chest pain. Plan short term tube feeding-consult home health and dietitian for management." Which of the following diagnoses will trigger an HCC assignment?
- A. Significant weight loss
- B. Anorexia
- C. Cachexia
- D. Barrett's esophagus
Answer: C
Explanation:
Within the CMS-HCC model, only certain diagnoses map to HCC categories that contribute to the RAF score. Among the listed options, cachexia is the diagnosis most likely to map to an HCC because it represents a serious systemic wasting condition associated with significant morbidity, higher expected resource use, and frequently coexists with advanced chronic disease. In contrast, Barrett's esophagus generally does not map to an HCC in CMS risk adjustment, and symptom-based diagnoses such as significant weight loss typically do not trigger HCC capture. Anorexia in general clinical usage often represents a symptom (loss of appetite) and, unless it is clearly documented as a qualifying malnutrition-related condition with appropriate specificity, it usually does not map to an HCC. The plan for tube feeding and dietitian involvement strengthens clinical relevance, but for risk adjustment the diagnosis must be one that maps to an HCC category-here, cachexia is the one that meets that criterion and would be the HCC-triggering diagnosis.
NEW QUESTION # 30
A patient receives treatment for diabetes during a primary care visit. He has a glucose level of 240 and A1C of 7.9. The patient is prescribed Gabapentin 100mg TID. Which of the following should the CDI specialist query for?
- A. Diabetes with macular degeneration
- B. Diabetes with ketoacidosis
- C. Diabetes with peripheral neuropathy
- D. Diabetes with chronic kidney disease
Answer: C
Explanation:
In outpatient CDI chart review, a key skill is recognizing when medications and treatment plans suggest a specific diabetic complication that is not explicitly documented. Gabapentin is commonly prescribed for neuropathic pain, and in a diabetic patient it is frequently used to treat diabetic peripheral neuropathy symptoms (burning, tingling, numbness, shooting pain). ACDIS outpatient CDI guidance supports querying when there are strong clinical indicators that a more specific, clinically relevant diagnosis may be present and is being treated at the encounter, because diabetes codes require complication specificity when supported (e.g., "diabetes with neuropathy" rather than unspecified diabetes). The elevated glucose and A1C confirm ongoing diabetes management but do not, by themselves, indicate CKD, macular degeneration, or ketoacidosis. Ketoacidosis would require documentation of acute metabolic decompensation and supporting clinical/lab findings, which are not provided here. Therefore, the most appropriate clarification is whether the patient has diabetic peripheral neuropathy (and whether it is painful neuropathy) being managed with gabapentin, so the provider can document the condition clearly and accurately.
NEW QUESTION # 31
A 76-year-old patient presents for a wellness visit. The patient's vitals are BP 120/80, T 98.7, R 19, and there are no abnormal findings in the exam. The patient has COPD, home oxygen, anemia, hypertension, diabetes, fatigue, and weakness. The patient's medications are called into the pharmacy and home health resource of choice. Which of the following is the BEST query option?
- A. Chronic respiratory failure
- B. CKD
- C. Peripheral neuropathy
- D. Acute blood loss anemia
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best query is chronic respiratory failure because home oxygen is a strong clinical indicator that often reflects an underlying chronic hypoxemic condition beyond uncomplicated COPD. Outpatient CDI guidance stresses that queries should be driven by present clinical indicators in the note and should seek clarification that impacts accurate diagnosis capture and ongoing care. Here, the provider documents COPD plus home oxygen and is arranging continued services (medication management and home health), which supports asking whether the patient has a reportable condition such as chronic respiratory failure with hypoxia (or COPD with chronic hypoxemia) and whether it is being monitored/managed. The other options lack support: acute blood loss anemia has no bleeding, hemodynamic instability, or acute findings; peripheral neuropathy is not assessed or described despite diabetes; and CKD has no labs, staging, history, or assessment. A compliant query would be non-leading and include the indicator (home O₂) and request the most accurate diagnosis and specificity/status.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which of the following BEST defines a risk score under the CMS-HCC model?
- A. Beneficiary's individual demographic and health status
- B. Beneficiary's demographics and social determinants
- C. Beneficiary and family demographics
- D. Beneficiary's health status and risk of mortality
Answer: A
Explanation:
Under the CMS-HCC model, a beneficiary's risk score (RAF) is intended to represent the expected cost of caring for that individual relative to an average beneficiary. The score is calculated using two primary inputs: (1) the beneficiary's demographic factors (such as age, sex, Medicaid status/dual eligibility, disability status, and original reason for Medicare entitlement, depending on the model segment), and (2) the beneficiary's documented disease burden captured through ICD-10-CM codes that map to Hierarchical Condition Categories (HCCs). Those HCCs reflect the person's health status and severity, with hierarchy rules preventing "stacking" of related conditions and with certain interaction terms in some model versions. Social determinants are not generally described as the defining basis of the traditional CMS-HCC RAF in CDI education, and "family demographics" are not used. The model is not a mortality predictor; it is a cost/risk prediction tool for payment adjustment. Therefore, the best definition is the beneficiary's individual demographic and health status.
NEW QUESTION # 33
A patient reports recent weight loss of 10 pounds in the last two months, decreased appetite, and no energy or desire to eat. She describes an inability to concentrate and complete simple tasks, likely due to ongoing insomnia. Documentation includes a PHQ-9 score of 11, and the patient is currently on paroxetine for depression. Which of the following is a query opportunity to obtain more specificity?
- A. Major depressive disorder
- B. Major depressive reaction
- C. Major depressive occurrence
- D. Major depressive event
Answer: A
Explanation:
In outpatient CDI, a strong specificity opportunity is to clarify the exact diagnostic term that best matches clinical indicators and supports correct ICD-10-CM reporting. The patient has multiple depressive symptoms (weight loss, poor appetite, low energy, impaired concentration), is already treated with an antidepressant (paroxetine), and has a PHQ-9 score of 11, consistent with at least moderate depressive symptom burden that warrants diagnostic clarity. Among the options, only Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) is a recognized clinical diagnosis category with structured ICD-10-CM options that require further specificity (e.g., single vs recurrent episode, severity-mild/moderate/severe, psychotic features, and remission status). The other choices ("occurrence," "event," "reaction") are nonspecific, nonstandard phrases that do not reliably map to accurate ICD-10-CM diagnostic reporting and do not help improve documentation precision. A compliant query would ask the provider to specify whether the patient has MDD and, if so, document the episode type/severity and relationship to insomnia if clinically relevant, ensuring the record reflects what is being evaluated and treated during the encounter.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which performance metric is MOST appropriate for an outpatient program to share with providers?
- A. HCC per member per month payments
- B. RAF scores
- C. APC payment rates
- D. Major complication comorbidity (MCC) rates
Answer: B
Explanation:
Outpatient CDI programs should share provider-facing metrics that are clinically meaningful, aligned with ambulatory documentation goals, and unlikely to be perceived as payment-driven prompting. RAF scores are an appropriate metric because they reflect how well the documented and coded condition burden represents the patient panel's complexity in risk adjustment models. Discussing RAF supports education around accurate diagnosis capture, specificity, and annual recapture of active chronic conditions that are monitored, evaluated, assessed/addressed, or treated. In contrast, APC payment rates are facility OPPS payment constructs and typically are not actionable for individual ambulatory provider documentation improvement. HCC per member per month payments is explicitly financial and can create compliance risk by tying documentation discussions directly to payment, which outpatient CDI guidance warns against in provider messaging. MCC rates are primarily an inpatient DRG severity concept and are not the most relevant outpatient performance measure. Therefore, RAF scores best balance provider relevance, program goals, and compliant education focus.
NEW QUESTION # 35
A CDI specialist identifies an opportunity to clarify a patient's BMI. The CDI specialist leaves a query within the medical record for the ancillary support team to address during the patient's visit. Which of the following BEST describes this type of query?
- A. Prospective
- B. Prebill
- C. Retrospective
- D. Concurrent
Answer: A
Explanation:
This scenario describes a query placed before the patient is seen, with the intent that the issue be addressed during the upcoming visit. In outpatient CDI practice, that is the defining feature of a prospective query: it is initiated ahead of the encounter so the provider and/or clinic team can capture needed specificity in real time (here, clarifying BMI-related documentation to support an obesity diagnosis when clinically appropriate). By contrast, a concurrent query is typically issued while the encounter is actively occurring or immediately as documentation is being created and reviewed in near-real time. A retrospective query occurs after the visit is completed, usually during post-encounter review, when opportunities are identified after documentation is finalized. "Prebill" refers to a workflow timing concept tied to billing hold/review before claim submission, not the clinical timing of when the patient will be seen. Because the query is placed in advance specifically to be addressed during the scheduled visit, prospective is the best classification.
NEW QUESTION # 36
Provider documentation states: "Type 2 Diabetes with bilateral peripheral arteriosclerotic disease of LE. Bilateral pedal pulses present. Review Hgb A1C and CBC. No change in treatment. Hypertension evaluated and well controlled on Lopressor." Which of the following conditions should be coded?
- A. Diabetes with peripheral angiopathy, hypertension
- B. Diabetes without complications, atherosclerosis bilateral legs
- C. Diabetes with peripheral angiopathy, atherosclerosis bilateral legs, diabetes with circulatory complication, hypertension
- D. Diabetes with peripheral angiopathy, atherosclerosis bilateral legs, hypertension
Answer: D
Explanation:
The documentation explicitly links the conditions by stating "Type 2 Diabetes with bilateral peripheral arteriosclerotic disease of LE," which supports a diabetic circulatory manifestation rather than "diabetes without complications." In outpatient CDI chart review, the word "with" and clear provider linkage allow coding of diabetes "with peripheral angiopathy" (a diabetes complication category) when peripheral arterial/arteriosclerotic disease is documented as associated. In addition, best practice is to code both the diabetes complication category and the specific manifestation when supported, because the manifestation (atherosclerosis of the lower extremities, bilateral) further describes the clinical condition being evaluated. Hypertension is also evaluated and managed ("well controlled on Lopressor"), meeting outpatient reporting expectations for an active condition addressed during the encounter. Option D is incorrect because it double-counts the same concept-peripheral angiopathy already represents a circulatory complication, so adding a separate "diabetes with circulatory complication" statement is redundant rather than additive. Therefore, the correct coding set includes diabetes with peripheral angiopathy, the bilateral lower-extremity atherosclerosis manifestation, and hypertension.
NEW QUESTION # 37
A CDI specialist is writing a query and including information from another facility's EHR via shared notes. Understanding that the ability to view shared notes may be revoked by the patient at any time, and to ensure HIPAA guidelines are followed, which of the following elements are BEST to include when sending the query?
- A. Provider name, date of shared note, follow-up procedure, and date of review
- B. Location of shared note, date of shared note, provider name, and specific documentation
- C. Location of shared note, provider name, specific documentation, and any follow-up procedure
- D. Provider name, date of shared note, specific documentation, and any follow-up procedure
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a CDI query references information from an externally shared note, best practice is to include enough identifying detail so the provider can locate and validate the source even if access is later revoked or if the shared record becomes unavailable. From an outpatient CDI and HIPAA-aligned workflow perspective, the query should clearly cite: where the information came from (the location of the shared note within the EHR/external record set), who authored it (provider name), when it was created (date of shared note), and the specific clinical documentation being referenced (the relevant statement/findings). This supports transparency, auditability, and minimizes the risk of misattribution or relying on inaccessible information. Options B-D are missing one or more critical elements-most notably the date and/or location of the shared note-making it harder to verify the source. Including "follow-up procedure" is not the priority for HIPAA-compliant source identification; the key need is traceability of the external documentation used to support the clarification request.
NEW QUESTION # 38
For outpatient/provider services, the primary sources of coding authority include the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, AHA's Coding Clinic for ICD-10-CM/PCS, as well as which of the following?
- A. AHA's Coding Clinic for HCPCS, ICD-10-PCS Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, and DRG Expert
- B. AHA's Coding Clinic for HCPCS and ICD-10-PCS Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting
- C. AHA's Coding Clinic for HCPCS and AMA's CPT Assistant
- D. ICD-10-PCS Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting and DRG Expert
Answer: C
Explanation:
Outpatient/provider coding relies on two major code sets: ICD-10-CM for diagnoses and CPT/HCPCS for professional services, procedures, and supplies. Because of that, outpatient coding authority is anchored not only in the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines and AHA Coding Clinic guidance for diagnosis reporting, but also in the authoritative guidance that clarifies CPT/HCPCS reporting. ACDIS outpatient CDI education stresses that CDI specialists must understand both sides: the diagnosis coding rules (ICD-10-CM) and the procedural/service reporting rules (CPT/HCPCS) that drive much of outpatient reimbursement. AMA's CPT Assistant is a key interpretive authority for CPT coding guidance, while AHA's Coding Clinic for HCPCS provides clarification on HCPCS Level II reporting. The other options focus on ICD-10-PCS guidelines and DRG tools, which are primarily inpatient facility concepts (PCS is inpatient procedure coding; DRGs are inpatient payment groupers). Therefore, the correct supplemental outpatient authority pair is AHA's Coding Clinic for HCPCS and AMA's CPT Assistant.
NEW QUESTION # 39
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