CCSK Revolutionary Guide To Exam Cloud Security Alliance Dumps [Q24-Q45]

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CCSK Revolutionary Guide To Exam Cloud Security Alliance Dumps

CCSK Free Study Guide! with New Update 120 Exam Questions


The CCSK certification exam is based on the latest version 4.0 of the Body of Knowledge (BoK) created by the Cloud Security Alliance. The BoK covers various topics related to cloud security, such as cloud infrastructure security, cloud application security, data security, compliance, and legal issues. CCSK exam consists of 60 multiple-choice questions that need to be completed in 90 minutes. The passing score for the CCSK certification exam is 80%, and the exam fee is $395.


Cloud Security Alliance CCSK (Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge) Exam is a globally recognized certification that validates the knowledge and skills of professionals in cloud security. It is designed to provide a comprehensive understanding of cloud security concepts, architecture, governance, compliance, and operations. The CCSK Exam is vendor-neutral, which means that it covers cloud security best practices regardless of the cloud service provider.

 

NEW QUESTION # 24
Operating System management is done by customer in which service model of cloud computing?

  • A. SaaS
  • B. PaaS
  • C. IaaS
  • D. XaaS

Answer: C

Explanation:
In IaaS model. operating system is managed by the customer


NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following is an effective way of segregating different cloud networks and datacenters in a hybrid cloud environment?

  • A. Dedicated Hosting
  • B. Virtual Private Networks
  • C. Bastion Virtual Network
  • D. Virtual LANs

Answer: C

Explanation:
One emerging architecture for hybrid cloud connectivity is "bastion" or "transit" virtual networks:
. This scenario allows you to connect multiple, different cloud networks to a data center using a single hybrid connection. The cloud user builds a dedicated virtual network for the hybrid connection and then peers any other networks through the designated bastion network.
. Second-level networks connect to the data center through the bastion network, but since they aren't peered to each other they can't talk to each other and are effectively segregated. Also, you can deploy different security tools, firewall rulesets, and Access Control Lists in the bastion network to further protect traffic in and out of the hybrid connection.
Reference: CSA Security GuidelinesV.4(reproduced here for the educational purpose)


NEW QUESTION # 26
John said that he is looking for cloud service which is self-serviced and has a on-demand capacity. Which service model is he referring to?

  • A. SaaS
  • B. PaaS
  • C. IaaS
  • D. XaaS

Answer: C

Explanation:
Following are the characteristics of IaaS service model of cloud computing:
1. Scale
2. Converged network and IT capacity pool
3. Self-service and on-demand capacity
4. High reliability and resilience


NEW QUESTION # 27
What refers refer the model that allows customers to scale their computer and/ or storage needs with little or no intervention from or prior communication with the provider. The services happen in real time?

  • A. Rapid elasticity
  • B. Resource pooling
  • C. On-demand self-service
  • D. Broad network access

Answer: C

Explanation:
It is the characteristic of 0n-demand self-service that allows customers to scale their computer and/ or storage needs with little or no intervention from or prior communication with the provider


NEW QUESTION # 28
Use elastic servers when possible and move workloads to new instances.

  • A. False
  • B. True

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 29
Object storage unsuitable for data that changes frequently, Is it true?

  • A. False, Object storage is suitable for all type of data
  • B. True, because whenever you update a file you may have to wait until the change is propagated to all the replicas before requests return the latest version
  • C. True, because data is geographically disperse and cannot be replicated
  • D. False, because change in one replica will also return latest version irrespective of its location

Answer: B

Explanation:
With object storage systems, data consistency is achieved eventually. Whenever you update a file, you may have to wait until the change is propagated to all the replicas before requests return the latest version.


NEW QUESTION # 30
Policy documentation and training is a:

  • A. Physical control
  • B. Administrative control
  • C. Logical control
  • D. Technical control

Answer: B

Explanation:
There are three, commonly accepted forms of Controls:
Administrative-These are the laws, regulations, policies, practices and guidelines that govern the overall requirements and controls for an Information Security or other operational risk program. For example, a law or regulation may require merchants and financial institutions to protect and implement controls for customer account data to prevent identity theft. The business, in order to comply with the law or regulation, may adopt policies and procedures laying out the internal requirements for protecting this data, which requirements are a form of control.
Logical -These are the virtual, application and technical controls (systems and software), such as firewalls, antivirus software, encryption and maker/checker application routines.
Physical -Whereas a firewall provides a "logical" key to obtain access to a network, a "physical" key to a door can be used to gain access to an office space or storage room. Other examples of physical controls are video surveillance systems, gates and barricades, the use of guards or other personnel to govern access to an office, and remote backup facilities.


NEW QUESTION # 31
ENISA: Lock-in is ranked as a high risk in ENISA research, a key underlying vulnerability causing lock in is:

  • A. Lack of completeness and transparency in terms of use
  • B. Unclear asset ownership
  • C. Audit or certification not available to customers
  • D. Lack of information on jurisdictions
  • E. No source escrow agreement

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 32
The Software Defined Perimeter (SDP) includes which components?

  • A. Client, Controller, Firewall, and Gateway
  • B. Client, Controller, and Firewall
  • C. Controller, Firewall, and Gateway
  • D. Client, Controller, and Gateway
  • E. Client, Firewall, and Gateway

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 33
Your SLA with your cloud provider ensures continuity for all services.

  • A. True
  • B. False

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 34
When investigating an incident in an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) environment, what can the user investigate on their own?

  • A. The CSP server facility
  • B. The logs of all customers in a multi-tenant cloud
  • C. The CSP office spaces
  • D. The network components controlled by the CSP
  • E. Their own virtual instances in the cloud

Answer: E


NEW QUESTION # 35
Which of the following is a key tool for enabling and enforcing separation and isolation in multitenancy?

  • A. Management Plane
  • B. Control Plane
  • C. Networking
  • D. Processors

Answer: A

Explanation:
The management plane is a key tool for enabling and enforcing separation and isolation in multitenancy.
Limiting who can do what with the APIs is one important means for segregating out customers, or different users within a single tenant. Resources are in the pool, out of the pool, and where they are allocated Reference: CSA Security Guidelines V.4(reproduced here for the educational purpose)


NEW QUESTION # 36
How is encryption managed on multi-tenant storage?

  • A. One key per data owner
  • B. Multiple keys per data owner
  • C. C for data subject to the EU Data Protection Directive; B for all others
  • D. Single key for all data owners
  • E. The answer could be A, B, or C depending on the provider

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following is a key consideration in Data security but does not feature in Data Security Life cycle?

  • A. Storage protocol
  • B. Storage Device
  • C. Storage Location
  • D. Access Method

Answer: C

Explanation:
The lifecycle represents the phases information passes through but doesnt address its location or how it is accessed.


NEW QUESTION # 38
One of the purpose of incident response is to minimize the adverse impact on business organizations.

  • A. False
  • B. True

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 39
Insufficient Identity. Credential and Access Management can lead to which of the following?

  • A. Spoofing Identity
  • B. Tampering with Data
  • C. Information Disclosure
  • D. All of the above

Answer: D

Explanation:
Sufficient Identity and Access Management practice should be followed in cloud environment.
Weakness in Identity, Credential and Access Management can lead to all types of threats as a compromised credential opens door to complete internal infrastructure.


NEW QUESTION # 40
IT Risk management is best described in:

  • A. ISO 27017
  • B. NIST SP800-14
  • C. ISO 27005
  • D. FIPS 140-2

Answer: C

Explanation:
IS027005 standards describes IT Risk Management process


NEW QUESTION # 41
How can key management be leveraged to prevent cloud providers from inappropriately accessing customer data?

  • A. Stipulate encryption in contract language
  • B. Segregate keys from the provider hosting data
  • C. Use strong multi-factor authentication
  • D. Select cloud providers within the same country as customer
  • E. Secure backup processes for key management systems

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 42
John's Laptop was stolen. He had saved all his passwords in a text file stored in his laptop. Adversary used the passwords from the text file and gained access to company's network and sensitive databases, of which John was the data base administrator. It resulted in theft of thousands of customer information. This incident could have been prevented by?

  • A. Web Application Firewall
  • B. Using multi-factor authentication
  • C. Monitoring through SIEM device
  • D. Data Loss Prevention Implementation

Answer: B

Explanation:
Use of multifactor authentication would have prevented adversary from logging in to the system. Other mechanisms would not help as they will see traffic coming from legimitate user.


NEW QUESTION # 43
According to ENISA(European Network and Information Security Agency) document on Security risk and recommendation. Isolation Failure is:

  • A. Compliance Risk
  • B. Management Risk
  • C. Technical Risk
  • D. Organizational Risk

Answer: C

Explanation:
Isolation failure is defined as:
Multi-tenancy and shared resources are two of the defining characteristics of cloud computing environments. Computing capacity, storage, and network are shared between multiple users. This class of risks includes the failure of mechanisms separating storage, memory, routing, and even reputation between different tenants of the shared infrastructure(e.g, so-called guest-hopping attacks, SQL injection attacks exposing multiple customers' data stored in the same table, and side channel attacks).


NEW QUESTION # 44
Which cloud-based service model enables companies to provide client-based access for partners to databases or applications?

  • A. Identity-as-a-service (IDaaS)
  • B. Platform-as-a-service (PaaS)
  • C. Desktop-as-a-service (DaaS)
  • D. Infrastructure-as-a-service (IaaS)
  • E. Software-as-a-service (SaaS)

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 45
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Cloud Security Alliance CCSK (Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge) Exam is a globally recognized certification that demonstrates an individual's knowledge and expertise in cloud security. The CCSK certification is designed for IT professionals, security practitioners, and cloud computing experts who want to validate their skills and knowledge in cloud security. The CCSK certification is vendor-neutral, meaning that it is not tied to any specific cloud platform or technology, and it covers a broad range of cloud security domains, including governance, risk management, compliance, architecture, and operations.

 

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